Did the Greeks win the battle of Salamis because their rowers were "free"?
Upvote:-4
Check out Victor Davis Hanson's excellent book "Carnage and Culture - Landmark Battles in the Rise of Western Power" for some interesting insight on the value of slaves vs non-slaves as they relate to the Salamis battle
Upvote:1
Only about 100 of the heavier Persian triremes could fit into the gulf at a time, and each successive wave was disabled or destroyed by the lighter Greek triremes. At least 200 Persian ships were sunk
The Persians could not go all out because only 100 ships could fit in the gulf at one time so 1st wave = defeated 2nd = defeated because greeks had like 500 and persians were 100 at a time
Upvote:9
No, because much if not all of the Persian Fleet consisted of contributions from Greek cities and thus had "free" rowers as well. Slave rowers are really a creation of the medieval period, not ancient times, despite what Ben Hur says.
Persia was a landlocked nation and had no naval tradition. However, its conquest of Asia Minor and the shores of the Mediterranean gave it access to many nations such as Tyre in Phoenicia, perhaps Rhodes, and the Greek city states in Asia Minor. These made up its fleet, but there is no reason to think that they enslaved the rowers for kicks. They were also reinforced just before the battles by the fleets of new subject cities in Thrace. Again, there's no time for changing the status of the rowers.
Also, the story of the battle of Salamis is one of the Greeks winning by restricting the battlefield rather than winning by bold maneuvers. If the Greeks had an edge in mobility, this strategy would negate it, not enhance it.
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