How do Christians who believe that salvation can be lost interpret John 6:37-44 and John 10:11-30?
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The phrase "salvation can be lost" can be a tad misleading, as "lost" has connotations of unwillingness, ie that you did not want it to be lost. Proponents of this view, however (such as myself), would rather say that salvation can be given up. No-one can snatch us away, ie take away our salvation by force, but we can willingly leave the Father's hand and deliberately turn away.
For John 6:37-44, the key is I think the word "will". Generally speaking, God has 2 wills: His perfect will, which reflects what a perfect sinless world would be like, and His antecedent will, which is more or less what we refer to as God's plan - the way God planned things to go taking into account the Fall and sin. For example, God's perfect will is that no-one would sin - sin is not something He wants. However, His plan includes every sin that has ever occurred, because Man with free will is corrupt and cannot live sinlessly.
It seems quite reasonable to me that this passage reflects the former; what God perfectly desires. In other words, God's perfect will is that all should be saved (after all, have not all things been given to Jesus?), and Jesus serves that purpose, by turning none away, even though not everyone will actually be saved.
Verse 44 simply states that being drawn is a prerequisite to be saved, but as John 12:32 tells us, all men are drawn.
The last passages could be referring to those who will persevere until the end - those who will actually be saved, as opposed to those who may be genuine believers but He knows will ultimately fall away.
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Source: stackoverflow.com
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