According to a Catholic interpretation of the Bible, was Jesus being glib in Matthew 6:34?

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You might look at the commentary of St. John Chrysostom, who is a 4th century Saint and Doctor of the Roman Catholic Church. He explains in his 22nd Homily on the the Gospel according to Matthew:

By evil here He means, not wickedness, far from it, but affliction, and trouble, and calamities; much as in another place also He says, Is there evil in a city, which the Lord has not done? nor any thing like these, but the scourges which are borne from above. And again, I, says He, make peace, and create evils: [Isaiah 45:7] For neither in this place does He speak of wickedness, but of famines, and pestilences, things accounted evil by most men: the generality being wont to call these things evil. Thus, for example, the priests and prophets of those five lordships, when having yoked the cattle to the ark, they let them go without their calves, [1 Samuel 6:9] gave the name of evil to those heaven-sent plagues, and the dismay and anguish which thereby sprang up within them.

This then is His meaning here also, when He says, sufficient unto the day is the evil thereof. For nothing so pains the soul, as carefulness and anxiety. Thus did Paul also, when urging to celibacy, give counsel, saying, I would have you without carefulness.

But when He says, the morrow shall take thought for itself, He says it not, as though the day took thought for these things, but forasmuch as He had to speak to a people somewhat imperfect, willing to make what He says more expressive, He personifies the time, speaking unto them according to the custom of the generality.

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