What was the difference between Jerusalem's honorary primacy and the primacy of Rome, Alexandria, and Antioch?
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Canon VI of the Council of Nicaea says, among other things:
LET the ancient customs in Egypt, Libya and Pentapolis prevail, that the Bishop of Alexandria have jurisdiction in all these, since the like is customary for the Bishop of Rome also. Likewise in Antioch and the other provinces, let the Churches retain their privileges.
Canon VII says:
SINCE custom and ancient tradition have prevailed that the Bishop of AElia [i.e., Jerusalem] should be honoured, let him, saving its due dignity to the Metropolis, have the next place of honour. [my emphasis]
The General Introduction to The Works of Saint Cyril of Jerusalem, Volume 1 (page 14) puts this in perspective, proposing that the seventh canon of Nicaea merely reasserted that Jerusalem was subject to Caesarea, "while also confirming to Jerusalem certain unspecified ancient privileges."
F.J.A. Hort (Two Dissertations 59) is cited on page 15:
All Palestine was subject to the supremacy of Antioch; and the metropolitan jurisdiction of Caesarea over the rest of Palestine was balanced by privileges peculiar to Jerusalem.
In strict terms of hierarchy, Jerusalem ranked below Caesarea and then Antioch, but, because of tradition, enjoyed privileges that otherwise were only enjoyed by Alexandria, Antioch and Rome.
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Source: stackoverflow.com
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