Innocent until conception or birth?
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No, Psalm 51:5 does not claim that an unborn child is sinless, quite the opposite, it says (in every translation I checked except the CEV) that they were either "conceived in sin" or "sinful since conception" which I would take to be equivalent in any case.
We are tainted by Adam's curse at conception; at no point are we without sin until we are washed of it by the blood of Christ. Therefore unborn children are as much destined to hell as any unrepentant sinner outside of the womb.
That said, there is the doctrine of the "age of accountability" that many Christians hold to, which while not strictly part of this question may be relevant to the overall answer.
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Innocent until conception or birth?
The answer is neither. A person is guilty of sin only when s/he committing that sin not before. Because sin is different than guilt. When Adam sinned he is gulty hypostatically, his human nature is affected by the penalty of that sin but not guilty of it. Because guilt is a predicament of hypostasis not nature. In Latin theology there is a distinction between the penalty or stain of original sin and that of guilt, the two are not the same. This is why Theotokos is innocent and immaculate because when she was conceived in sin guilt is not involved. In our divine liturgy we sing hymns to her by calling her, panagia, meaning all holy. The Logos assumed the same fallen humanity from the Theotokos. Unless He was conceived in sin (not guilt) then the humanity which He assumed would not saved us. Because only that which He assumed is healed. About dying infants they all died innocently and guiltless.
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