Were the Western World's general political and ideological consensus and consequent actions primarily responsible for the global ending of slavery?
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If I read it correctly, your question is:
"Were the Western World's general political and ideological consensus and consequent actions primarily responsible for the global ending [the legal institution of] slavery?"
There is considerable debate in the historical community about this.
One prominent theory is the the industrial revolution led to a structure of labor that was more efficient than slavery. In a few words, the rise of wage labor was more economically efficient than slave labor.
Another theory is that the mechanization of farming led to the end of slavery - that is, machines made agricultural slavery obsolete.
Another theory is that as European culture became more enlightened and democratic, the abolitionist movement naturally gained steam and became mainstream.
While it is likely that these or other theories are responsible for the impetus and motivation behind the ending of the legal institution of slavery, one thing is clear: Slavery as a legal institution was ended was worldwide for two reasons. First, because the Europeans in the 1800's were opposed to slavery. More importantly, the second reason is because Europeans controlled most of the world's legal systems via colonialism, and were thus able to impose their will upon the rest of humanity.
Please note that the Europeans exported their economic models as well, which made the abolition of slavery stick. Whether the export of the industrial revolution was good or bad is, of course, a matter of opinion.
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