Why were there no religious wars in Poland?
score:33
That Poland avoided internal wars of religion can indeed be attributed to the religious tolerance of the state at this time, a tolerance that stretches back a long time.
And this has to do with it's position, where many of its neighbouring countries were not Catholic. To the east the Kievan Rus adopted Orthodoxy, and further north the areas now known as Lithuania remained pagan until the end of the 14th century, by which time the pagan Lithuanian kings had expanded their rule to cover much of the Orthodox Kievan Rus. Although the Lithuanian rulers adopted Catholicism (in a failed attempt to stop the Teutonic Order "crusading" in Lithuania) much of the Grand Duchy of Lithuania remained Orthodox.
Soon after the official Christianization of Lithuania a Polish-Lithuanian Union was created. This means that the Polish kings had not only the Catholic church, but also several different Orthodox churches in their area. At that point the rulers had a choice between either trying to forcefully convert everyone to the same church (but then, which one?) or just adopt an attitude of religious tolerance.
But Poland's leaders was constantly busy fending off enemies like the Teutonic knights (early 15th century), the Bohemians (15th century), the Crimean Tatars (attacked on 75 separate occasions between 1474 and 1569) and the Grand Duchy of Moscow (pretty much all the time). That meant that it needed to concentrate on defending itself rather than bothering with religion, so the obvious solution was to just let people go to whatever church they wanted.
When the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth was created in 1569, it also had a system with checks and balances on power, meaning that the King couldn't have forced a religion on the people even if he wanted to, which continued the religious tolerance, made official in the above mentioned Warsaw Confederation.
To a large extent then, the religious tolerance was to prevent internal religious wars, due to having many churches. This tolerance then paved the way for other religions. The tolerance may also have had some source in the relatively large Jewish population living in Poland since the 10th century. This population seems to have been tolerated by polish kings and princes for economic reasons. But the question then arises why this happened in Poland and not in other places, and I suspect that once again the answer is that the Polish was dealing and trading with both Orthodox and pagans anyway.
If this is multi-culturalism that creates tolerance, or tolerance that creates multi-culturalism, depends entirely on your definition of multi-cultural. But I would say that with normal definitions it's not multi-cultural to have several different churches in a country, but it is multi-cultural to have many ethnic groups and religions. And with that definition it is the tolerance that creates the multi-culturalism, and not the other way.
Further reading:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish%E2%80%93Lithuanian_Commonwealth
God's playground - A history of Poland - Norman Davies
Upvote:-2
It would seem that religious toleration in Poland became a necessity because borders with Lutheran Prussia and Orthodox Russia kept changing and people had to be reabsorbed into Poland. Also people fled intolerance in Prussia and Russia going to Poland for sanctuary. Poland needed France and Austria as allies against Prussia; therefore, it was wise to remain officially Roman Catholic while allowing Protestant and Eastern Orthodox to worship freely.
Upvote:0
The Polish political system had its roots in medieval society : the king was elected by nobles (like a tribal chief). Once nobles chose to change their religion there wasn't any absolutist monarch that could stop them. Besides people wore religion more lightly than is realised (of course history records the fanatics but most people were socially religious). It was fanatical Jesuits who forced out other faiths and changed Poland from pluralism to exclusively Catholic.
Upvote:2
Your question identifies, and hypothesizes a correlation between distance from Rome and pro (or anti) Catholic leanings. Under this hypothesis, Poland ought to be a "conflicted" country because of its "middle" distance.
In seeking a correlation (that may be false), the hypothesis overlooks causal variables that affected other "middle distance" countries like England and Bohemia, and not Poland.
In England, for instance, the anti-Catholic spark came not from religion per se, or relations between countries, but rather King Henry VIII's desire to divorce Catherine of Aragon, and marry Anne Boleyn. The Pope, who was practically a hostage of Catherine's nephew, Charles V, couuld not allow this. That's why Henry VIII broke with the Catholic church and set up the Church of England.http://www.greatsite.com/timeline-english-bible-history/king-henry.html
In Bohemia, anti-Catholic feeling went back to the early 15th century, to the Hussite rebellions, which were aimed against Austrian overrule. This pre-dated Martin Luther and "mainstream" Protestantism by almost a century. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hussite_Wars
In Poland, on the other hand, there were no anti-Catholic irritations. In fact, Poland had a history of religious tolerance going back to the 12th century, when King Boleslaus III welcomed both Jews from western Europe and Islamic Tartars from the east. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hussite_Wars Thus, when it was offered the alternative of Protestantism, Poland could accomodate both (plus Russian orthodoxy and others).
Upvote:5
In fact, Poland had at least one internal religious war, namely, the Khmelnytsky Uprising in 1648–1657, right at the end of the 30 year war in Central Europe.
Religion, ethnicity, and economics factored into this discontent. While the Polish–Lithuanian Commonwealth remained a union of nations, a sizable population of Orthodox Ruthenians were ignored. Oppressed by the Polish magnates, they took their wrath out on Poles, as well as the Jews, who often managed the estates of Polish nobles. The advent of the Counter-Reformation worsened relations between the Orthodox and Catholic Churches. Many Orthodox Ukrainians considered the Union of Brest as a threat to their Orthodox faith.
You can read more in the linked wikipedia article as well as this one.
Upvote:12
Poland was indeed involved in the 30 Years War, sending death squads to aid Habsburg allies in Bohemia and getting decked when Bohemia sicced the Ottoman Empire on them.
At this time, Poland-Lithuania was far more unified politically under the Magnates and royalty than the Holy Roman Empire... and nobody kid themselves, the 30 Years War was a political as well as a religious war. Rising European powers sought to solidify their power into what we know now as a nation-state, and the implosion of the Holy Roman Empire gave them the opportunity they needed. Distance from Rome was not as much of a factor as the political landscape - Ireland remained Catholic, mostly to spite their regional rival, England, and they were a very long way from Rome - and many Swiss cantons became protestant, despite bordering on what's now Italy.
The strong leadership in Poland-Lithuania allowed it to quell internal cultural strife with the Warsaw Confederation, which granted religious freedom to the subjects of the Commonwealth. This was something of a tradition for the area, going back to the Statute of Kalisz, which formalized tolerance for Jewish subjects, and the continuation of the toleration policies of Zygmunt II.
This dual policy - tolerating protestants at home and slaughtering them abroad - kept the peace without endangering Catholic rule.
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